Workforce Planning & Employment

1. Affirmative Actions Plans are defined as:

  1. Part of EEOC requirements
  2. Written plans for recruiting and hiring minorities and females
  3. Staffing plans for use with government contracts
  4. Quota systems

2. Employment-at-will involves:

  1. An agreement by both parties to an employment contract
  2. Protection by collective bargaining
  3. Termination provisions for just cause dismissals
  4. The ability of either party to terminate the employment relationship at any time

3. A job analysis is:

  1. Part of an Affirmative Action Plan
  2. Produces a job description or a job specification
  3. Required by the EEOC
  4. Produced by a job description or a job specification

4. Which of the following describes an example of an alternative work schedule?

  1. Job sharing
  2. Self-directed work teams
  3. Job rotation
  4. Task forces

5. Which of the following is the typical method of measuring employee adherence to performance standards?

  1. Lack of quality problems
  2. Goal fulfillment
  3. Participative management
  4. Performance appraisal

6. A validity study, either predictive or concurrent, in which the predictor data are statistically correlated with the criteria of performance:

  1. Criterion-related validity
  2. Content validity
  3. Concurrent validity
  4. Construct validity

7. Sex discrimination, sexual harassment, racial/ethic discrimination, and age discrimination are all:

  1. Offenses for which employers may be sanctioned under the Taft-Hartley Act
  2. Examples of employment discrimination
  3. Violations of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor
  4. Policies required to be included in an employer personnel policy and procedure manual

8. A job analysis includes:

  1. Obligations to perform certain tasks
  2. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions
  3. A systematic way to gather and analyze information about the content and the human requirements of jobs, and the context in which jobs are performed
  4. A larger work segment composed of several tasks that are performed by an individual

9. Performance appraisal is another name for

  1. 360 degree feedback
  2. Employee evaluation
  3. Human resources management
  4. Job design

10. Which of the following is an issue addressed by the Civil Rights Act of 1991?

  1. race norming
  2. international employees
  3. seniority system
  4. consent decrees
  5. all of the above

11. The 4/5ths rule states that:

  1. discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market.
  2. discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
  3. discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.

12. An index number giving the relationship between a predictor and a criterion variable is:

  1. correlation coefficient
  2. concurrent validity
  3. content validity
  4. predictive validity

13. The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of:

  1. age
  2. disability
  3. gender
  4. national origin

14. A manager always hires young, women as receptionists. This is an example of:

  1. intentional discrimination
  2. disparate treatment
  3. disparate impact
  4. sexual harassment

15. FMLA requires employers having ___ employees within a ___ mile radius provide 12 weeks of protection for qualified employees.

  1. 50, 50
  2. 50, 75
  3. 100, 50
  4. 100, 75

16. A job is:

  1. A group of similar positions having common tasks, duties, and responsibilities.
  2. A task performed by one person.
  3. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.
  4. A person’s title at a company

17. A situation that exists when protected-class members are treated differently from others is known as:

  1. Disparate Impact
  2. BFOQ
  3. Business Necessity
  4. Disparate Treatment

18. What type of rule states that discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the groups representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group?

  1. 3/4ths rule
  2. 5/6ths rule
  3. 1/4ths rule
  4. 4/5ths rule

19. A person with in-depth knowledge and expertise in a limited area of HR:

  1. HR generalist
  2. HR manager
  3. HR specialist
  4. All of the above

20. An employee who is a citizen of one country, working in a second country and employed by an organization headquarted in a third country:

  1. Third country national
  2. Host country national
  3. Expatriate
  4. None of the above

21. Which prohibits discrimination in employment on basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin:

  1. Executive Order 11246
  2. Executive Order 11478
  3. Civil Right Act of 1991
  4. Civil Rights Act of 1964

22. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits which of the following in the workplace?

  1. Discrimination or segregation based on race, color, national origin, religion, or gender.
  2. Discrimination based on pregnancy, childbirth, or related conditions.
  3. Sexual harassment.
  4. All of the above.

23. What does the Family and Medical Leave Act allow employees to do?

  1. To take an extra week of paid vacation.
  2. To take a two-year leave of absence to care for an ill family member.
  3. To take up to twelve weeks of unpaid leave during any twelve-month period in order to care for a d. family member, or to care for self due to a serious health condition.
  4. To buy additional medical benefits.

24. Which of the following are exceptions to the definition of discrimination in the workplace?

  1. Work-related requirements and BFOQ’s.
  2. Seniority systems.
  3. Preferential quota systems
  4. All of the above.

25. What is disparate treatment?

  1. When protected groups are intentionally treated differently from other employees.
  2. Employees who are evaluated by different standards.
  3. Favoritism based on a person’s hair color.
  4. A and B

26. Individuals can prove a prima facia case of disparate treatment if they can demonstrate that they:

  1. Belong to a minority group or are in a protected class.
  2. Applied for a job for which the employer was seeking applicants.
  3. Were rejected, despite being qualified.
  4. Were rejected and the employer kept looking for people with their qualifications.
  5. All of the above

27. What does the EEO Program require that employers do?

  1. Keep employee medical files separate from employee personal files.
  2. Maintain detailed records on their work force (including applicant flow).
  3. Adjust staffing policies to fit demographic needs.
  4. B and C.

28. What is an affirmative action program?

  1. When an employer provides a mentoring program for minorities.
  2. A program in which employers identify conspicuous imbalances in their workforce, and take positive steps to correct under representation of protected groups.
  3. An effort by the employer to donate money to inner-city schools.
  4. A program in which the employers provides tuition reimbursements for their minority employees.

29. According to the ADA, the essential job functions in a job description should be listed

  1. In order of importance
  2. In order of time spent on the task.
  3. In alphabetical order
  4. In no order at all, the ADA requires no particular order.

30. Which of the following is an example of listing all employees from highest to lowest in performance?

  1. Forced distribution
  2. Paired Comparison
  3. Ranking
  4. Structuring

31. Assuming no willful violation, what is the statute of limitations for recovery of back pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act?

  1. Two years
  2. Three years
  3. Four years
  4. Five years

32. Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act :

  1. Prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender and national origin.
  2. Applies only to government agencies
  3. Prohibits discrimination based on sexual orientation
  4. Prohibits employers from giving temporary preference to any underrepresented protective group

33. What agency is in charge of enforcing Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act?

  1. NLRB
  2. ADA Board
  3. EEOC
  4. Department of Justice

34. Which law regulates minimum wages, work hours for children and overtime compensation?

  1. Norris LaGuardia Act
  2. Taft Hartley Act
  3. Fair Labor Standards Act
  4. Wage Discrimination Act

35. Which document Identifies and Gives the right to work to an individual?

  1. U.S. passport
  2. Government I.D.
  3. Social Security Card
  4. U.S. Birth Certificate

36. The FLSA provides for unpaid rest breaks if the break is_____ minutes or over?

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30

37. If the federal minimum wage is $ 5.15 an hour, but the state you live in pays $5.50 an hour. What is the minimum wage that you follow?

  1. $ 5.15
  2. $ 5.25
  3. $ 5.50
  4. You are free to decide.

38. If an employee terminates their employment, how long is the employer required to make insurance under COBRA available to the employee?

  1. 18 months
  2. 24 months
  3. 12 months
  4. 16 months

39. If a trainer develops a training program for their employer, who owns the copyright to it?

  1. The person who prints it.
  2. The trainer who wrote it.
  3. The trainer and the employer.
  4. The employer of the trainer who wrote it.

40. Which one is not a characteristic of an independent contractor?

  1. They have a continuous relationship with the employer
  2. Working off site
  3. Flexibility to set their own work schedules
  4. Furnish their own tools and training.

41. The FLSA regulates all of the following except?

  1. Overtime pay
  2. Employee status
  3. Employee Retirements Plan
  4. Record keeping and other administrative concerns

42. The Railway Labor Act covers which of the following employees?

  1. Railroad employees only
  2. Railroad employees and trucking employees
  3. Railroad employees and airline employees
  4. Railroad employees and maritime employees

43. A closed shop is a shop that

  1. Employers refuse to hire employees who are members of a union.
  2. Unions require employees to be union members at the time of hiring
  3. Employers establish company-sponsored unions
  4. Is the most frequent type of union environment in the US

44. The OSHA “general duty clause” means:

  1. That the employer must maintain a safe work environment where no standards have been established.
  2. The employer has the right to choose what OSHA regulations to follow as long as they use good judgment.
  3. The employer must establish more strict health and safety guidelines than established by OSHA.
  4. The employer has the option of following state health and safety regulations or OSHA standards.

45. What is not required to be listed on the OSHA Form 200?

  1. Date of the injury
  2. Employee Name
  3. Occupation/ Department
  4. Age of the employee

46. At home many employees, must a company comply with OSHA record keeping?

  1. 25
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. 32

47. Which situation has the highest priority for an OSHA inspection?

  1. An employee complaint of extremely long hours at work.
  2. An employee that is exposed to loud noises.
  3. A situation that causes 7 or more employees to be hospitalized.
  4. An employee who complains about not enough lighting at their workstation.

48. What is the maximum penalty for a willful or repeat violation?

  1. Up to $100,000 for each violation.
  2. Up to $15,000 for each violation.
  3. Up to $70,000 for each violation.
  4. Up to $ 60,000 for each violation

49. What is the best way to avoid negligent hiring charges?

  1. To check all references
  2. Use psychological testing on applicants
  3. Require drug testing
  4. Use disclaimers

50. A job description should include all of the following except?

  1. Essential functions of the job.
  2. Who the position reports to.
  3. The person who last held that job.
  4. Minimum qualifications for that position.

51. A good MBO has all of the following except:

  1. Obtainable goals and objectives
  2. Goals established by boss or supervisor
  3. Periodic review of objectives
  4. Goals are measurable

52. In the action plan step of the performance management process, all take place except:

  1. The employee agrees with everything said on the evaluation
  2. Specific objectives are set for the next evaluation period
  3. A plan is developed on how the employee will meet new objectives
  4. A discussion on how follow up will take place

53. A progressive discipline is a:

  1. System that fires employees on the first offense
  2. System that is based on co-workers deciding an employee’s punishment
  3. Series of disciplinary actions that results in more severe punishment
  4. Where alternative dispute resolutions are used

54. Quid pro quo means:

  1. Hostile work environment
  2. This for that
  3. Reasonable person
  4. Whistle blowing

55. The Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title VII requires employers with ______ employees to comply with the provisions of the act:

  1. 100
  2. 75
  3. 15
  4. 50

56. Employers should respond to sexual harassment complaints with which of the following:

  1. Policy, communications and training, plus investigation and action
  2. Investigation, discipline procedures, and written policies
  3. Reprimand and dismissal
  4. Sympathy for the victim

57. The ADA states that individuals covered by the act:

  1. Are responsible to inform the employer of their impairment
  2. Must pay for their accommodation up to $500.00
  3. Must be able to perform the duties of the job with accommodation
  4. Must be able to perform the essential job functions

58. The duties, responsibilities, working conditions, and reporting relationships contained in a job can be found on a:

  1. Job identification
  2. Job posting
  3. Job description
  4. Job knowledge test

59. A type of interview that relies on a careful job analysis to identify the critical job requirements for each position. The interview questions focus on what the person has done in previous situations relative to the job requirements.

  1. Situational interview
  2. Targeted-selection interview
  3. Panel interview
  4. Nondirective interview

60. Which pre-employment measure could a company use to screen candidates for employment who might pose a security risk to the organization?

  1. Polygraph test
  2. Drug test using a blood test
  3. Drug test using a urinalysis test
  4. Background check with the candidate’s permission

61. The purpose of EEO laws is

  1. to see what can be done about “glass ceiling” concerns
  2. to counterbalance what the Congress felt was a too “employer friendly” attitude by the Supreme Court
  3. to notify age discrimination complainants that the agency is terminating action on their cases and the complainants are then free to file civil suits
  4. protect individuals who share certain characteristics such as race, age, and gender

62. Content validity refers to

  1. a non-statistical approach using a work sample as a test that identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for the job being filled by a particular candidate
  2. validity showing a relationship between an abstract characteristic and job performance
  3. validity measured when test results of applicants are compared with subsequent performance
  4. the extension of the validity of tests to different groups, similar jobs, or other organizations

63. Appropriate responses by employers to sexual harassment complaints include:

  1. having a sexual harassment policy
  2. communications and training
  3. investigation and action
  4. all of the above

64. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions is referred to as:

  1. job
  2. task
  3. position
  4. duty

65. Identification of the tasks, duties and responsibilities of a job is defined as:

  1. job specification
  2. skill inventory
  3. job description
  4. performance standard

66. Which of the following is an observation method for conducting job analysis?

  1. work sampling
  2. interviewing
  3. employee diary/log
  4. a and c

67. Which of the following recruitment methods allows candidates to talk to employers about an opening without making a formal job application?

  1. executive search firms
  2. public employment agencies
  3. employee referrals
  4. career fairs

68. A systematic investigation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities necessary to do a job is known as:

  1. Job Analysis
  2. Job Evaluation
  3. Job Description
  4. Job Specification

69. Which source of recruiting is not an example of external recruiting?

  1. School Recruiting
  2. Media Sources
  3. Employment Agencies
  4. Promotion

70. Which of the following is a condition that may exist when a person is denied an opportunity because of preferences given to protected-class individuals who may be less qualified?

  1. Affirmative Action
  2. Reverse Discrimination
  3. Discrimination
  4. Disparate Treatment

71. The best place to start a recruitment program is by conducting a ______ ?

  1. Strategic analysis.
  2. Demand Analysis.
  3. Needs Analysis
  4. Supply Analysis

72. What are the advantages to recruiting employees internally?

  1. They bring new ideas into the organization.
  2. It rewards good work of current employees and improves morale.
  3. It is cost-effective.
  4. It can result in succession of promotions.
  5. B, C, and D

73. Which of the following is not an example of Internal recruitment strategy?

  1. Job rotation
  2. Job posting
  3. Skill banks
  4. Employee referral

74. Which of the following is an example of asking each applicant similar questions about their same skills?

  1. Structured
  2. Patterned
  3. Directive
  4. Behavioral

75. Which of the following is an example of asking applicants questions about their past behavior?

  1. Behavioral interview
  2. Stress interview
  3. Non-directive
  4. Directive

 


ANSWERS:

1. B
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. E
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. D
22. D
23. C
24. D
25. D
26. E
27. D
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. A
32. A
33. C
34. C
35. A
36. D
37. C
38. A
39. D
40. A
41. C
42. C
43. B
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. C
51. B
52. A
53. C
54. B
55. C
56. A
57. D
58. C
59. B
60. D
61. D
62. A
63. D
64. B
65. C
66. D
67. D
68. A
69. D
70. B
71. C
72. E
73. A
74. B
75. A

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